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Posted 3 Months, 1 Week ago
quaternion
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I can't remeber the proper way to play naturals. If I'm playing in the key of G and the composer indicates a natural F in the bass, do all F's become natural or just the one indicated by the composer? I've experimented with playing only the bottom natural and the top sharped and with both naturaled, either way *sounds* exceptable.
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Posted 3 Months, 1 Week ago
juanorez
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In standard notation, only the f# on the line indicated by the composer is made natural, all others remain sharp. That one f natural will remain natural until the end of that measure (unless it is remarked with a sharp) but will then revert to f# in the following measure. There are instances of sloppiness when naturals should have been marked in both staves, but usually these are obvious. Composers or editors will also occasionally mark 'courtesy' sharps or naturals to indicate that there will be a change from what was marked earlier, even if the player should know that it should revert automatically.
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Posted 3 Months, 1 Week ago
quickcup
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Be careful with POP song books. I find mistakes in them all the time. They'll put the accidental on the wrong note sometimes. Let your ear and experience be the judge.
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Posted 3 Months, 1 Week ago
donk
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It has always been unclear to me whether an accidental is necessary when the note in question is tied to a properly notated note in the previous measure. I see it done both ways.

The accidental is usually in parentheses.
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Posted 3 Months, 1 Week ago
Big Blue
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As far as I know, the 'correct' answer is 'no', although IMHO this makes for visual confusion when the next note after the tie is the same note again and this time is needs an accidental.
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